FCOM VOL 2 (Type Rating)

What are OEB Immediate Actions?

Actions identified in an Operations Engineering Bulletin that must be memorized and immediately applied without referring to the OEB.

When do MMEL requirements cease to apply?

After the thrust levers are advanced at the start of takeoff.

When may a tripped circuit breaker normally be reset or cycled in flight?

Only when an explicit FCOM or QRH procedure specifies that action.

Up to what altitude is the basic A220 approved for flight in icing conditions?

Up to 35,000 ft.

What is the basic maximum landing approach-path angle in Chapter 2?

3.5 degrees

What is the A220 VMO at and below 8,000 ft?

300 KIAS.

What is the A220 high-altitude maximum operating Mach number?

Mach 0.82.

What are the A220 VFE values for FLAP 1 through FLAP 5?

FLAP 1: 230 KIAS; FLAP 2: 210 KIAS; FLAP 3: 210 KIAS; FLAP 4: 190 KIAS; FLAP 5: 170 KIAS.

What is the recommended turbulence penetration speed on the A220?

265 KIAS at or below 10,000 ft, or 280 KIAS above 10,000 ft, or Mach 0.75, whichever is lower.

What is the A220 tire limit speed?

195 knots ground speed.

What is the A220 maximum operating altitude?

41,000 ft.

What are the maximum and minimum ambient temperatures approved for A220 takeoff and landing?

Maximum +52.5°C and minimum -54°C.

What are the A220 maneuvering limit load factors with flaps up and flaps down?

Flaps up: -1.0 g to +2.5 g; flaps down: 0.0 g to +2.0 g.

At what OAT does the A220 FCOM define cold-weather operations?

At an OAT of 0°C or below.

When is engine operation prohibited in ground fog?

When OAT is below -18°C.

When is takeoff prohibited in ground freezing fog?

When ground freezing fog exists and visibility is less than 150 m (500 ft).

Is infrared deicing approved on the A220?

No. Infrared deicing is prohibited.

How are in-flight icing conditions defined for A220 anti-ice limitations?

TAT 10°C or below with visible moisture, except when SAT is -40°C or below.

What are the key A220 wing anti-ice limitations in flight?

Do not hold in icing with flaps/slats extended; wing anti-ice must be OFF above 35,000 ft and must not be ON above TAT 15°C.

What action is required when A220 SLD icing is identified?

Select wing and cowl anti-ice ON and leave the icing conditions; continued operation in SLD icing is prohibited.

What speed correction is required for a FLAP 5 approach and landing in icing conditions?

Increase VREF, VAC, and VGA by 5 KIAS.

What source must be used for the A220 Smoke/Fire/Fumes procedure?

The QRH.

What are the maximum wind limits for passenger and cargo door operation?

40 kt for opening or closing and 65 kt with the door held open.

What are the A220 pressurization differential-pressure limits?

Maximum positive 8.8 psid, maximum negative -0.5 psid, and no more than 1.0 psid at initial touchdown.

What is the minimum APU oil temperature for starting?

-40°C.

What is the general maximum altitude for APU bleed-air extraction?

23,000 ft, subject to the detailed pack, occupant, and temperature limitations.

What is the maximum altitude with A220 slats or flaps extended?

20,000 ft.

What are the limitations for manually extended A220 flight spoilers?

At least 300 ft AGL and at least VREF + 10 KIAS; MAX spoilers are for emergencies only.

What happens to fuel remaining in a tank when its fuel quantity indicator reads zero?

It is considered unusable.

What is the minimum A220 fuel quantity for go-around?

442 kg (975 lb) per wing under the specified level-aircraft and maximum 10-degree nose-up climb-attitude conditions.

What are the A220 bulk-fuel temperature limits relevant to takeoff?

Maximum bulk fuel temperature is +52.5°C and takeoff is prohibited below -37°C.

What must be the status of manual fuel transfer and gravity crossflow for takeoff?

They must be OFF.

When must NAV mode be selected for a localizer approach?

Before the Final Approach Fix.

What speed mode must be used when flying VAPP in final landing configuration?

MAN SPD.

Is QFE altimeter setting permitted on the A220?

No. QFE operation is prohibited.

What is the minimum engine oil temperature for takeoff?

49°C.

What cooling period is required after three engine start attempts or four minutes of continuous cranking?

30 minutes.

How long should Ground Service Mode be OFF before aircraft power-up?

At least one minute.

What must occur before electrical-system configuration changes are made during APU start?

APU GEN must show online on the ELEC synoptic.

What must be done before another APU start attempt after an APU SHUTDOWN advisory during start?

Set the APU switch to OFF.

When must the A220 Cabin Inspection be completed?

Before the first flight of the day or after any crew change.

How is preliminary takeoff performance verified on the A220?

PF and PM compute it independently and compare the results.

How many landing-gear pins must be accounted for onboard during Preflight?

Three.

Which side should XFR be selected to during Preflight?

The PF side.

What transponder and TCAS configuration is checked during Preflight?

XPDR 1 selected, TCAS AUTO, and Flight ID inserted.

What altitude should be set in the FCP altitude window during Preflight?

The initial expected clearance altitude.

What are the normal Preflight selections for AUTOBRAKE and NOSE STEER?

AUTOBRAKE RTO and NOSE STEER OFF.

What ADS and IRS configuration must be confirmed during Preflight?

On-side ADS and IRS, with no white or amber ADS/IRS messages on the FMA.

What confirms the rudder trim is correctly centered after its Preflight test?

The rudder-trim triangle outline is green.

How is the A220 sidestick Preflight test performed?

Both pilots test their sidesticks in turn and verify correct indication and normal return to neutral.

What oxygen-mask setting is selected after the Preflight test?

100%.

When are TOGA, NAV and VNAV configured for departure?

After the Preflight flow and FMS preparation are complete.

If HDG is expected after departure, which lateral mode must be used for takeoff?

TO mode; HDG is selected later at a safe altitude.

How long should the crew wait after changing from external power to APU power before disconnecting external power?

5 seconds.

What hydraulic-pump configuration is recommended for engine start with external electrical power in use?

HYD 3A and 3B OFF for start, then AUTO after one or both engines are started.

Is single-engine taxi recommended on slippery or contaminated surfaces?

No.

What hydraulic selection is recommended before flap movement or flight-control checks with only the right engine operating? and what with only the left engine operating?

only right engine - PTU ON. only left engine - HYD 2B ON.

What must be true before moving the flight controls on the ground?

All hydraulic systems must be powered.

What nose-steering selection is made after the Before Taxi flight-control check?

NOSE STEER ON.

What must the stabilizer trim match before takeoff?

The STAB TRIM value on the FMS PERF DEP page, within the green range.

What is the required rudder-trim condition before takeoff?

Centered and green.

What performance data must be used when the brakes are not held until takeoff thrust is set?

Rolling-takeoff performance.

Can a derated or FLEX takeoff be initiated without operative and armed autothrottle?

No.

What is the initial engine thrust setting during a normal takeoff?

Approximately 55% N1, stabilized on both engines.

By what speed must the thrust levers reach the takeoff setting?

Before 60 kt ground speed.

What does the PM call at 80 KIAS when takeoff thrust is correctly set?

EIGHTY KNOTS, THRUST SET.

What is the normal A220 takeoff rotation rate?

3 to 5 degrees per second toward the PTM.

When is POSITIVE CLIMB called?

When vertical speed is positive and radio altitude is increasing.

At what minimum height is the stabilized-climb mode-change gate?

Not below 400 ft AGL.

Which engine may be started first using an external air source?

Either engine.

What are the maximum bank angles in takeoff configuration with all engines operating and with one engine inoperative?

30° AEO; 15° OEI.

When does automatic wing anti-ice operation satisfy the daily wing anti-ice check objective?

After more than 3 consecutive minutes of automatic operation in flight without a failure.

What is Green Dot speed used for in holding?

It is the recommended holding speed because it results in minimum fuel flow.

When destination QNH is displayed on the FMS PERF ARR page, what must be confirmed?

ALT is below 10,000 ft.

What three conditions are recommended before selecting APPR for an ILS?

Cleared for the approach, within 25 NM of the runway threshold, and LOC deviation one dot or less.

By when should VNAV be deselected during an approach without vertical guidance?

At the latest 1 NM before the FAF in the detailed procedure.

When is the final FPA normally set when the FAF follows a level-off?

0.3 NM before the FAF.

What lateral mode transition occurs after localizer capture on a LOC-only approach?

Select NAV to transition from APPR LOC1/2 to LOC1/2.

What is the FDP?

The point at or before the FAF from which a constant descent is defined.

When may autothrottle be re-selected after the thrust levers have been advanced to takeoff thrust?

At or above 400 ft AGL.

What is the immediate response to unexpected autothrottle behavior in flight?

Disconnect autothrottle and operate the thrust levers manually.

With one or both thrust reversers inoperative and RWYCC 2 or below, what should be considered first?

Landing on a runway with RWYCC 3 or above.

What must be set before leaving circling MDA?

The go-around altitude on the FCP.

What is the primary objective if visual references are lost during circling?

Climb, remain within the protected circling area, and join the missed approach of the initial instrument approach.

What vertical path does an FMS visual approach provide?

A 3-degree path to the runway threshold.

What lateral/vertical modes initially engage for a go-around below 200 ft?

GA and (V)GA; above 200 ft FMS 1(2) is displayed when applicable.

How are FMA changes normally called?

PF calls active modes without color and armed modes with color; PM responds CHECKED.

What are the standard control-transfer callouts when giving control?

YOU HAVE CONTROL — I HAVE CONTROL.

What is the automatic reverse-thrust cutback speed?

60 kt.

What must be confirmed before battery power is removed after APU shutdown?

APU cooldown complete and APU RPM 0%.

Which three cues make GNSS position unreliable in the FCOM supplementary procedure?

MAP position shift, magenta TAWS overlay, or FMS DR.

What is the LVO decision gate for an approach capability down-grade?

1000 ft AAE; a down-grade below 1000 ft AAE requires a go-around.

At approximately what speed is autopilot disengagement recommended after autoland rollout?

Approximately 30 kt, using the sidestick A/P DISC switch.

When is an aircraft considered cold-soaked?

Ambient temperature at or below -7°C for more than 8 consecutive hours without cold-soak prevention.

When does holdover time start?

At the start of the final application of deicing/anti-icing fluid.

What is the main difference between Type I and Type II/IV fluids?

Type I has low viscosity and short holdover time; Type II/IV are thickened and provide longer anti-icing protection.

What should be done with slats/flaps during taxi-in after landing in icing contamination?

Do not retract them until the areas have been inspected for contamination.

What is the A220 recognition cue for SLD icing?

Ice accumulation on the cockpit side windows.

What are the immediate A220 reactive windshear recovery actions?

MAX thrust; select TOGA; follow FD guidance smoothly and precisely; SPOILER RET; maintain configuration.

What is PM's primary role during windshear recovery?

Monitor instruments and thrust, and call significant changes in airspeed, climb rate, pitch, thrust, and altitude.

What is the preferred aircraft-control philosophy in turbulence?

Use AP and AT as the primary means of control when possible; do not make abrupt inputs to hold altitude.

Can the weather radar detect volcanic ash or dust?

No.

What is the basic volcanic-ash escape strategy?

Reduce thrust toward IDLE if altitude permits, reverse course if possible, select cowl and wing anti-ice ON, and monitor EGT.

Why must the OEI acceleration speed target initially be above current speed?

To prevent unwanted autothrottle thrust reduction during level acceleration.

When is half-bank required during an OEI takeoff?

For turns below acceleration altitude until speed is above V2 + 10.

What happens after an engine failure following NADP thrust reduction with AUTO/AT engaged?

Thrust automatically returns to MCT.

What altitude is selected for emergency descent at or below 25,000 ft?

15,000 ft or the lowest safe altitude, whichever is higher.

What speed limit applies during emergency descent with structural damage?

Do not exceed the speed at which the damage occurred.

What pitch/bank values define an upset?

More than 25° up, 10° down, or 45° bank; inappropriate airspeed can also qualify.

What speed is set at the single-engine go-around acceleration altitude?

Green-dot speed.

When may flap be reduced during a balked landing?

When ≥VGA, climbing, safely established, and there is no touchdown risk.

What must happen before external ground power is disconnected?

EXT PWR must be selected and confirmed AVAIL.

Can donor-engine parameter oscillations during crossbleed start be normal?

Yes, if parameters remain within operating limits.

What can happen if TOGA is selected within 2 min of an FMS reset?

Missed-approach sequencing may be inhibited; SEQ AUTO may be required.

How are multiple non-normal ΔVREF corrections combined?

Use the highest ΔVREF only; do not add them.

How are multiple abnormal landing-distance factors combined?

Multiply factors for unrelated failures; use the highest factor for related failures.

What reference speed is used to calculate the baseline OLD before applying an abnormal factor?

Normal VREF at the failure's reference flap configuration.

What is the ECL indication for an incomplete procedure that has been interrupted?

STARTED.

What is the difference between PLAN TO LAND, LAND, and LAND IMMEDIATELY?

Plan during checklist; land at PIC discretion without unnecessary extension; or land without delay, respectively.

What is the first priority in a CABIN ALT warning?

Oxygen masks and crew communication; emergency descent if required.

What configuration and attitude distinguish ditching from normal landing?

Gear UP, maximum available flaps, approximately 11° touchdown attitude.

What is the approximate touchdown attitude for an all-gear-UP forced landing?

Approximately 5° pitch at VREF, with minimum vertical rate.

Who reads and who executes the A220 emergency evacuation ECL?

Right-seat CPLT reads as PM; left-seat PLT performs commanded actions.

What does FIRE SYSTEM FAIL require?

Land immediately at the nearest suitable airport.

What are the normal and LAND 2 runway-slope limits?

Normal takeoff/landing: ±2%. LAND 2 autoland: maximum +0.8% upslope and -1.0% downslope.

What are the basic and optional LOT A220 tailwind limits?

Basic FCOM: 10 kt for takeoff and landing. LOT selected C10400001, extending demonstrated capability to 15 kt under Supplement 18

What additional limitations apply to TAKEOFF with tailwind greater than 10 kt?

Maximum 15 kt; comply with Supplement 18 engine-operating wind-zone chart. Zone 1: Normal/High Wind Takeoff as applicable; Zone 2: High Wind Takeoff required; Zone 3: takeoff prohibited.

Under which conditions is LANDING with tailwind greater than 10 kt permitted?

Maximum 15 kt; FLAP 5 only; airport pressure altitude ≤6000 ft; no failed system requiring an OLD factor; required performance and operator approval.

How is OLD tailwind correction calculated for landing with more than 10 kt tailwind?

Multiply the correction distance for a 10 kt tailwind by 1.5. Do not multiply the entire OLD by 1.5.

What are the A220 AP minimum engagement and use heights?

Minimum engagement: 400 ft AGL. General minimum use: 80 ft AGL.

What are the A220 limitations on FPLN UPLINK?

FPLN UPLINK is prohibited in flight; clear REQUEST PENDING before takeoff.

What is the normal engine cool-down requirement before shutdown?

At/near IDLE (≤40% N1) for at least 3 cumulative minutes; 5 minutes recommended. Taxi time may count.

What waiting times apply when restoring aircraft power?

Allow at least 15 s before a power-on; after a complete normal Power-Off, a minimum 60 s power-off period is recommended before restoring power.

What are Airbus takeoff maximum recommended crosswinds for RWYCC 6–1, and what does LOT OM-A prohibit?

32/32/27/20/10/10 kt, gust included. LOT prohibits both takeoff and landing at RWYCC ≤1.

What happens if visual references are lost before versus after touchdown in LVO?

After DH but before touchdown: go around. After touchdown: no go-around; continue the landing/rollout and monitor the autoland system.

What is the bleed/pack restoration timing after deicing/anti-icing?

At least 1 minute after treatment completion, restore bleeds/equipment cooling to AUTO as applicable; 1 minute after bleeds AUTO, restore packs AUTO.

Are a go-around or touch-and-go permitted after thrust-reverser deployment?

No. After reverser deployment a full-stop landing must be completed.

What vertical descent rates define a hard landing at different landing weights?

>600 fpm at or below MLW; >360 fpm above MLW through MTOW. Other abnormal touchdown events (e.g. strikes or nosewheel-first touchdown) may also qualify.

What speed-management trap can occur after an FMS reset, and what should the crew do?

FMS speed target may revert to approach speed; verify the target and select MAN SPD with the required speed if inappropriate.

[LOT OM-A] What takeoff thrust-reduction method is prohibited on a contaminated runway?

Assumed Temperature/FLEX or equivalent thrust reduction is prohibited; a certified derated thrust rating may be used if permitted by performance and other limitations.

What are the Airbus maximum recommended landing crosswinds for RWYCC 6–2?

29/29/27/20/10 kt. LOT prohibits landing at RWYCC ≤1.

What are LAND 2 minimum runway width and maximum airport pressure altitude?

Minimum runway width 45 m; maximum autoland airport pressure altitude 8466 ft.

What are LAND 2 ILS glideslope and automation requirements?

ILS GS 2.5°–3.25°; dual-engine operation; AP and AT required.

What autoland approach-speed correction is prescribed?

AT use requires VREF+5 kt; up to another +5 kt for gust correction (half the gust), maximum total VREF+10 kt.

How must a CAT II APPR 2 approach be completed on the LOT aircraft without HUD?

AP-coupled approach, disconnect AP by 80 ft AGL at the latest, and land manually. LAND 2 autoland is a separate procedure.

When is engagement of the engine starter on the ground prohibited?

When indicated N2 is above 20%.

What are the maximum engine ground-operation wind components for engine start and ice shedding?

Crosswind 43 kt and tailwind 18 kt, at 10 m tower height; other wind-zone limitations still apply.

What APU bleed-air selection is required during takeoff at OAT ≤15°C?

APU BLEED OFF. If the APU is off, keeping its bleed switch in AUTO is acceptable under the Before Takeoff procedure.

What aircraft braking action is prohibited during towbarless towing?

Use of aircraft brakes.

At what latitudes is FMS navigation prohibited?

North of 73°N and south of 60°S.

May the FMS OPT ALT and MAX ALT predictions be used for flight planning?

No. Their use for flight planning is prohibited.

What flight-deck printer operations are prohibited in flight?

Printing WT & BAL, enroute charts and NOTAM charts.

When must TAWS TERR be inhibited at an airport absent from the TAWS database?

For takeoff or landing within 15 NM of that airport.

How must a true heading be entered in the FMS?

Use the xxxT format.

What are the PW1521G-3 main EGT and rotor-speed limits?

Maximum EGT for engine start, takeoff and reverse: 1054°C; max continuous EGT: 1016°C; maximum N1 and N2: 100%.

What N1 limits apply during cold-engine warm-up by oil temperature?

Below -40°C: start prohibited; below -6°C: IDLE only; -6°C to below 21°C: ≤30% N1; 21°C to below 49°C: ≤50% N1; ≥49°C: no oil-temperature N1 restriction.

What are the first three actions for unreliable airspeed?

Autopilot disengage; autothrottle off; flight directors off.

For cockpit lithium-battery flames, who uses respiratory protection and extinguisher?

PF uses oxygen mask; PM uses PBE and extinguisher.

What is the primary purpose of Operational Landing Distance (OLD)?

Advisory in-flight landing-distance assessment.

When does the A220 fluid/snow contamination criterion generally apply?

More than 25% of the relevant runway area covered by more than 3 mm.

What wet-runway crosswind limit applies with one thrust reverser inoperative?

25 kt.

How are CTP selections normally shared?

Each pilot performs selections on their own onside CTP, regardless of AP status.

Who makes FMS changes during taxi?

The PM; the PF confirms the entries before execution.

When should non-normal procedure actions normally begin after takeoff or go-around?

At or above 400 ft AAE, unless a critical action is required earlier and the flight path is safe.

What is the basic priority order for multiple procedures?

Warning, warning follow-on, Normal Checklist, Caution, caution follow-on, subject to Captain's judgement and operational circumstances.

Which cockpit controls require an in-flight cross-check before operation?

ENG RUN switches, thrust levers, all guarded switches, and any control requiring confirmation in the non-normal procedure.

What does FORDEC stand for?

Facts, Options, Risks/Benefits, Decision, Execution, Check/Change.

What important data are not copied when COPY TO SEC is used?

Performance data are not copied to the Secondary Flight Plan.

What is the preferred mode for a small altitude change within about 5,000 ft?

(V)FLC is normally preferred to (V)VS because it provides a smoother altitude change while maintaining the speed target.

What must be considered when flying HDG with VNAV still active?

VNAV may continue to respect FMS vertical constraints while within 10 NM of the FMS track or with track-angle error below 75°. If the FMS vertical profile is not intended, deselect VNAV and manage altitude constraints with the FCP.

How should the FMS normally be sequenced when radar-vectored toward final approach?

Use Direct To to the appropriate approach waypoint and enter the inbound final approach course in the CRS field; do not use Direct To beyond the Final Descent Point.

What must be remembered after programming an FMS hold?

The FMS may create a default hold rather than the charted hold. Verify the geometry and review SAFE: Speed, Altitude, Fuel and Expect further clearance.

How does the FMS treat holding for descent and fuel predictions?

The number of circuits is unknown; after the holding fix sequences, the FMS assumes one holding pattern unless an EFC time is entered.

What are the A220 landing-gear speed limits?

VLO extension 250 KIAS; VLO retraction 220 KIAS; VLE 250 KIAS.

What are the key VA restrictions?

Rapid alternating inputs can be structurally hazardous at any speed; in Direct Mode, full control inputs/near-stall maneuvers must remain below VA.

When is ground engine ice shedding required and how is it performed?

OAT ≤3°C with visible moisture; ≥60% N1 every ≤30 min, with the final run within 5 min before takeoff.

What applies when either A220 wing tank contains more than 2,830 kg?

No unattended APU; start the left engine first. If center fuel <10,670 kg, transfer wing fuel to center until <2,830 kg.

Why are the first A220 Power-on actions memorized, and what are they?

ECL is initially unavailable: PARK BRAKE ON; BATT 1 AUTO; BATT 2 AUTO; ECL on DU2.

What key external items are checked around the reversers and spoilers?

TR/fan-cowl latches latched and flush; reversers stowed; MFS and ground spoilers flush with the wing.

When is cold-soak clear ice a concern on the A220 wing?

Cold fuel can freeze moisture even above 0°C; check the upper wing when fuel ≤0°C with high humidity or visible moisture.

When and how is the A220 ice-detector test checked?

First flight of the day; ICE caution appears during the test and DONE confirms completion.

What external-air pressure applies for an A220 engine start?

38 psi recommended at sea level; 45 psi maximum.

How is the daily wing anti-ice test performed at or below 8,000 ft?

Once daily; ≥30% N1 with dual bleed or ≥50% with single bleed; PASS confirms completion.

How is an autothrottle disconnect handled during the takeoff roll?

<60 KIAS: abort. >60 KIAS: DERATE—match target N1; TO/TO FLEX—set thrust levers MAX.

What changes during a High Wind Takeoff?

After stabilizing near 55% N1, set takeoff thrust at 20 kt; PM calls TWENTY KNOTS.

What are the LOT A220 maximum takeoff and landing weights?

MTOW 63,049 kg; MLW 57,379 kg.

What are the recommended initial climb speeds?

AEO: V2+10 KIAS. OEI: V2.

How is the in-flight wing anti-ice check performed during climb?

TAT ≤15°C; below applicable altitude limits; maintain climb thrust and select WAI ON for 3 min.

How is the in-flight wing anti-ice check performed during descent?

Below 31,000 ft with TAT ≤15°C and IDLE thrust; the low-altitude check below 19,000 ft is 2 min.

What bank limits apply at Green Dot?

AEO: 30° to 31,500 ft, then 15°. OEI: 25°.

What FMS-to-chart final-path differences are acceptable?

Vertical: 0.1°. Lateral: 1° normally; 3° for a conventional radio-NAVAID approach.

How is MDA treated during a CDFA?

As a DA; without required visual reference at MDA, go around.

What are the key gates for GS/VGP intercept from above?

Arm APPR/GS or VGP; FCP altitude ≥1,000 ft AAE; stabilize by 1,000 ft; use about 1,000–1,500 ft/min if needed.

How is automation normally used during an A220 circling approach?

Use FPA to capture MDA; continue in HDG with AP and AT until ready to maneuver to final.

What are the normal A220 landing flap options?

FLAP 4 normally; FLAP 5 may be used for a normal short-field landing.

What bank limits apply in landing configuration?

At VREF: maximum 25°. At VREF+5: up to 30°.

What is the difference between SET and SELECT?

SET changes a value without changing mode; SELECT changes, engages or disengages a mode.

What is the difference between GNSS jamming and spoofing?

Jamming degrades or removes GNSS reception; spoofing produces erroneous GNSS data.

What are the first priorities when GNSS position becomes unreliable?

Select HDG, notify ATC, inhibit TAWS TERR, then continue the READ & DO procedure, normally by PM.

What does the Clean Aircraft Concept permit regarding wing frost?

Critical surfaces must be clean; up to 3.0 mm frost is permitted on the lower wing, but upper-wing frost must be removed.

What is the recommended response to predictive windshear?

Takeoff below 80 kt: reject. Approach: go around.

What configuration and automation apply during reactive windshear escape?

Keep gear/flaps unchanged initially; engaged AP/AT remain engaged. FMA: TO/WSHR on takeoff, GA/WSHR on approach.

What is the difference between NADP CLOSE-IN and DISTANT?

CLOSE-IN: thrust reduction before acceleration. DISTANT: acceleration before thrust reduction.

When is EDM available and what does it preset?

Above 25,000 ft; 15,000 ft, HDG, VMO−10/MMO−.02, AP engaged and AT at idle.

What is the A220 stall-recovery priority and sequence?

Reduce AOA first: AP OFF → AT OFF → reduce AOA → wings level → thrust as required → SPOILER RET.

What are the key A220 upset-recovery priorities?

Use the aircraft symbol, not FPV. If stalled, recover the stall first; in a nose-high upset, thrust reduction may help pitch down.

How is an A220 TCAS RA initially handled?

AP OFF, both FDs OFF; AT may remain in SPD. Fly FPV into the RA zone; restore normal modes after CLEAR OF CONFLICT.

How is crew oxygen pressure displayed and what does 1050 psig mean?

EICAS is temperature-corrected to 70°F/21°C; 1050 psig is the CREW OXY LO PRESS threshold, not dispatch minimum.

What crew oxygen pressure is required for two pilots?

900 psig normally; 950 psig on mountain routes, where terrain prevents flight at or below 10,000 ft.

How is a go-around performed after MLG touchdown?

Do not select TOGA. Use MAX thrust and manual flight, target about 10° pitch; re-engage AT only after selecting (V)FLC.

What are the key considerations for an overweight landing?

Disconnect AP by 80 ft AGL and land manually; avoid excess speed and a prolonged flare.

What speed restrictions apply in EMER PWR ONLY/RAT operation?

Initially ≤300 KIAS/M0.80; maintain ≥155 KIAS until landing assured. RAT GEN may be lost below 148 KIAS.

What does BATT EMER PWR ON imply?

Batteries are the sole source for at least 5 minutes; if depleted, brakes are unavailable.

How do ground COWL and takeoff WING anti-ice thresholds differ?

COWL: OAT ≤10°C. WING for takeoff: OAT ≤5°C, with the specified moisture/contamination conditions.

What are the standard airborne go-around flap, speed and bank targets?

FLAP 4→2; FLAP 5→4. AEO: VGA and 30°. OEI: VAC and 20°.

What LAND 2 wind limits apply?

CAT II/III: H25/X15/T10 kt. CAT I or better: H29/X24 demonstrated; tailwind limit 10 kt.

How is cold-weather thrust-reverser cycling performed after >120 min?

-40 to -20°C: cycle twice, take off within 5 min. Below -40°C: cycle until deployment ≤2.5 s, then take off within 2 min.

How is OEI net level-off capability assessed for dispatch?

Use a 1,000 ft obstacle/MEA margin; if net level-off weight is below planned TOW, reduce TOW or perform detailed driftdown.

How are STOP ECL and CONTINUE ECL used?

STOP ECL for actions requiring both-pilot acknowledgement/check; CONTINUE ECL resumes the procedure.

How is tasksharing divided during an in-flight non-normal procedure?

PF flies, navigates and communicates after procedure initiation; PM monitors and performs the ECL/QRH/OEB actions.

When should the next FLAP position normally be selected during approach deceleration?

When available, at no less than the F-speed for the next configuration; with AT, preferably before reaching that F-speed and about 10 kt below VFE when possible.

What is the important speed-margin trap when extending to FLAP 2?

F2 can be close to the FLAP 2 VFE of 210 KIAS; anticipate the deceleration and use gear/spoilers as required for energy management.

What is the initial technique after an engine failure during cruise?

Confirm/set MCT, disconnect AT as required, select MAN SPD and initially Green Dot, select HDG as appropriate, determine OEI altitude, then set it and select FLC.

When is Green Dot versus M0.78/290 used during an OEI drift-down?

Green Dot is used for obstacle strategy/best gradient; standard strategy uses M0.78/290 to remain in the stabilized windmill-relight envelope.

What is done near the end of a standard OEI drift-down?

When descent rate becomes less than 500 ft/min, select V/S -500 ft/min and AT ON.

What speed-mode philosophy applies after an engine shutdown?

Use MAN SPD and do not reselect FMS SPD while operating OEI unless the procedure later permits it.

When must an inoperative engine not be relit?

When engine damage is suspected, after engine fire, or when a relight could reasonably cause a fire.

What are the key A220 single-engine relight envelopes?

ATS: ≤250 KIAS, ≤27,000 ft crossbleed or ≤23,000 ft APU. Windmill: ≥250 KIAS and ≤27,000 ft. WAI OFF.

What should the crew do when a TCAS TA occurs?

PF calls “TCAS, I have control,” prepares for an RA, but does not maneuver solely on the TA.

Which has priority during a TCAS RA: ATC clearance or the RA?

Always follow the RA, even if it conflicts with ATC, crosses the intruder altitude or commands a climb above the aircraft ceiling.

How quickly should the aircraft respond to a corrective or strengthened/reversal TCAS RA?

Initial corrective RA: within 5 s. Strengthened or reversal RA: within 2.5 s.

How is an IAS EFIS MISCOMPARE resolved using the ADS sources?

Review all ADS sources: if three are consistent, select a valid source; if fewer than three are consistent, accomplish Unreliable Airspeed.

When may airspeed be considered reliable again during the Unreliable Airspeed procedure?

Only when at least two ADS sources agree and the indication has been cross-checked against N1/thrust data.

What is the fundamental handling change in FBW Direct Mode?

Normal envelope protection is unavailable; use small inputs. Pitch retains limited damping, while roll/yaw are more direct and stabilizer trim is manual.

How does pitch trim indication and operation change in Direct Mode?

The trim switches command stabilizer movement directly and the trim-speed bug is not displayed; confirm trim by stabilizer position/movement.

What are the immediate priorities in the generic Smoke/Fire/Fumes procedure?

Protect the crew if required, establish communication, plan to land at the nearest suitable airport, and isolate smoke circulation/sources as directed.

When is the Smoke or Fumes Removal procedure used and what is its basic strategy?

When smoke/fumes become the greatest threat: EMER DEPRESS ON, descend to 10,000 ft or lowest safe altitude, PACK FLOW HI if available, and assess smoke evacuation.

Should passenger oxygen masks normally be deployed during a smoke/fire procedure?

No. Passenger masks should not be deployed for smoke/fire itself; they may be required later for a depressurization-related condition.

What is the basic concept of A220 Graphical Flight Planning?

MAP database symbols are smart objects that can modify the FMS route; a white dotted route is MOD, and EXEC makes it ACT/magenta.