06 Air Law & Airspace

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Pytanie English Odpowiedź English
What does SERA stand for?
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Standardised European Rules of the Air.
What is the main EU regulation containing SERA?
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Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) No 923/2012, as amended.
What is ICAO Annex 2?
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Rules of the Air.
What is ICAO Annex 6?
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Operation of Aircraft.
What is ICAO Annex 10?
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Aeronautical Telecommunications.
What is ICAO Annex 11?
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Air Traffic Services.
What is ICAO Annex 12?
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Search and Rescue.
What is ICAO Annex 14?
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Aerodromes.
What is ICAO Annex 15?
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Aeronautical Information Services.
What is ICAO Annex 19?
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Safety Management.
What is ICAO Doc 4444?
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PANS-ATM: Procedures for Air Navigation Services — Air Traffic Management.
What is ICAO Doc 8168?
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PANS-OPS: Aircraft Operations, including flight procedures and procedure design.
What does SARP stand for?
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Standard and Recommended Practice.
Who is responsible for compliance with the Rules of the Air?
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The pilot-in-command, whether manipulating the controls or not.
May the PIC depart from the Rules of the Air in an emergency?
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Yes, when absolutely necessary in the interests of safety.
Who has final authority over the disposition of the aircraft?
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The pilot-in-command.
What must pre-flight action include for IFR flights?
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Study of available information, weather, fuel/energy requirements and an alternative course of action.
What is controlled airspace?
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Airspace where ATC service is provided according to its airspace classification.
Which ICAO/SERA airspace classes are controlled airspace?
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Classes A, B, C, D and E.
What is a controlled flight?
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Any flight subject to an ATC clearance.
What is a Flight Information Region (FIR)?
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Airspace of defined dimensions within which FIS and alerting service are provided.
What is a control area (CTA)?
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Controlled airspace extending upward from a specified limit above the Earth.
What is a control zone (CTR)?
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Controlled airspace extending upward from the surface to a specified upper limit.
What is a prohibited area?
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Airspace within which flight is prohibited.
What is a restricted area?
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Airspace within which flight is restricted according to specified conditions.
What is a danger area?
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Airspace where activities dangerous to aircraft flight may exist at specified times.
Can an aircraft enter a prohibited or restricted area freely?
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No. Only according to published conditions or with appropriate permission.
What flights are permitted in Class A airspace?
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IFR only.
What separation is provided in Class A?
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All aircraft are separated from each other.
Is ATC clearance required in Class A?
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Yes.
Are IFR and VFR flights permitted in Class B?
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Yes.
What separation is provided in Class B?
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All IFR and VFR aircraft are separated from each other.
Is ATC clearance required for both IFR and VFR in Class B?
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Yes.
Are IFR and VFR flights permitted in Class C?
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Yes.
From which traffic are IFR flights separated in Class C?
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From both IFR and VFR traffic.
From which traffic are VFR flights separated in Class C?
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From IFR traffic.
Are VFR flights separated from other VFR flights in Class C?
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No; they receive traffic information and avoidance advice on request.
Is ATC clearance required for all flights in Class C?
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Yes.
Are IFR and VFR flights permitted in Class D?
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Yes.
From which traffic are IFR flights separated in Class D?
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From other IFR flights.
Are VFR flights separated from IFR traffic in Class D?
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No; traffic information is provided.
Is ATC clearance required for all flights in Class D?
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Yes.
Are IFR and VFR flights permitted in Class E?
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Yes.
What separation is provided to IFR flights in Class E?
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IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights.
Are VFR flights separated from other traffic in Class E?
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No.
Does VFR normally require ATC clearance in Class E?
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No.
Does IFR require ATC clearance in Class E?
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Yes.
Is continuous two-way radio normally required for IFR in Class E?
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Yes.
Is continuous two-way radio normally required for VFR in Class E?
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No, unless another requirement such as an RMZ applies.
Can a control zone be Class E under SERA?
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No.
What service characterises Class F airspace?
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Air traffic advisory service for participating IFR flights; FIS is available if requested.
Is ATC clearance required in Class F?
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No.
What separation is provided in Class G?
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None by ATC.
What service may be provided in Class G?
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Flight Information Service if requested.
Is ATC clearance required in Class G?
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No.
How does SERA classify airspace above FL195?
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Class C.
Where does the standard 250 kt IAS limit below 10,000 ft apply under SERA?
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VFR in Class C and all flights in Classes D, E, F and G, subject to authorised exceptions.
Why does the 250 kt limit exist in less restrictive airspace?
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To improve the ability to visually acquire traffic that may not be separated.
What is an RMZ?
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Radio Mandatory Zone.
What is required when operating in an RMZ?
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Continuous radio watch and two-way communication as necessary, unless alternative provisions apply.
What should an initial RMZ call normally contain?
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Station, callsign, aircraft type, position, level, intentions and other required information.
What is a TMZ?
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Transponder Mandatory Zone.
What equipment is normally required in a TMZ?
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An operating Mode A/C or Mode S SSR transponder, unless alternative provisions apply.
Where are RMZs and TMZs published?
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In the relevant AIP.
What are the standard VMC minima at or above 10,000 ft?
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8 km visibility; 1,500 m horizontally and 1,000 ft vertically from cloud.
What are the standard VMC minima below 10,000 ft above the low-level band?
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5 km visibility; 1,500 m horizontally and 1,000 ft vertically from cloud.
What defines the low-level VMC band?
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At or below 3,000 ft AMSL or 1,000 ft above terrain, whichever is higher.
What are the low-level VMC minima in Classes A–E?
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5 km visibility; 1,500 m horizontally and 1,000 ft vertically from cloud.
What are the normal low-level VMC minima in Classes F and G?
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5 km visibility, clear of cloud and with the surface in sight.
Can low-level visibility in Class F/G be reduced below 5 km?
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Yes, when specifically prescribed by the competent authority.
What is a typical lower visibility limit for qualifying fixed-wing low-level VFR?
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1,500 m when permitted and flown at 140 kt IAS or less under applicable conditions.
Do published VMC minima for Class A mean VFR is allowed there?
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No. They are provided for guidance; Class A remains IFR only.
Without special clearance, when may VFR not take off or land at an aerodrome in a CTR?
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When ceiling is below 1,500 ft or ground visibility below 5 km.
May VFR normally operate above FL195?
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No, except under specific published or authorised arrangements.
How high may specifically authorised VFR traffic operate under the SERA exception?
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Up to and including FL285.
Why is VFR authorisation above FL285 restricted in RVSM airspace?
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Because 1,000 ft vertical separation is applied above FL290.
What is the minimum VFR height over a congested area?
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1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 600 m, except for take-off, landing or authorised exceptions.
What is the normal minimum VFR height elsewhere?
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500 ft above ground/water or the highest obstacle within 500 ft radius.
When do VFR cruising levels normally apply?
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In level cruising flight above 3,000 ft above ground or water, unless otherwise specified.
What is Special VFR?
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A VFR flight authorised by ATC to operate within a CTR in conditions below normal VFR criteria.
Is an ATC clearance required for Special VFR?
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Yes.
Must Special VFR remain clear of cloud?
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Yes.
Must a Special VFR pilot keep the surface in sight?
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Yes.
What is the minimum Special VFR flight visibility for aeroplanes?
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1,500 m.
What is the minimum Special VFR flight visibility for helicopters?
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800 m.
What is the maximum normal Special VFR speed?
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140 kt IAS.
Is Special VFR normally conducted by day?
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Yes, unless night SVFR is permitted by the competent authority.
When may ATC not issue SVFR for take-off, landing or circuit operations to an aeroplane?
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If ground visibility is below 1,500 m or ceiling below 600 ft.
What instruments and navigation equipment must an IFR aircraft have?
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Equipment appropriate to the route and compliant with applicable air operations rules.
If no State minimum IFR altitude is published, what applies over mountainous/high terrain?
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At least 2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 km.
If no State minimum IFR altitude is published, what applies elsewhere?
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At least 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 km.
Does encountering VMC automatically justify cancelling IFR?
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No.
When should IFR normally be cancelled after entering VMC?
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Only when continued flight in uninterrupted VMC is intended and expected for a reasonable period.
What phrase is used to cancel IFR under SERA?
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“CANCELLING MY IFR FLIGHT.”
Can ATC invite or pressure a pilot to cancel IFR?
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No.
What rules apply to IFR flights within controlled airspace?
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They must comply with ATC clearances and applicable ATC procedures.
How are IFR cruising levels selected outside controlled airspace?
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According to track and the table of cruising levels, unless otherwise specified.
When are cruising levels expressed as flight levels?
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At or above the lowest usable flight level or above the transition altitude.
When are cruising levels expressed as altitudes?
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Below the lowest usable flight level or at/below the transition altitude.
What is transition altitude?
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The altitude at or below which vertical position is normally expressed as altitude.
What is transition level?
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The lowest usable flight level above the transition altitude.
What is the transition layer?
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The airspace between transition altitude and transition level.
For tracks 000°–179°, which IFR cruising levels are used?
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Odd thousands: FL030, FL050, FL070, etc., subject to the applicable level table.
For tracks 180°–359°, which IFR cruising levels are used?
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Even thousands: FL040, FL060, FL080, etc., subject to the applicable level table.
For tracks 000°–179°, which VFR cruising levels are normally used?
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Odd thousands plus 500 ft: e.g. FL035, FL055, FL075.
For tracks 180°–359°, which VFR cruising levels are normally used?
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Even thousands plus 500 ft: e.g. FL045, FL065, FL085.
What does RVSM stand for?
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Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum.
What vertical separation does RVSM provide?
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1,000 ft.
What is the standard ICAO RVSM band?
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FL290 to FL410 inclusive.
Why does RVSM require specific aircraft capability?
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Altimetry and altitude-keeping performance must support reliable 1,000 ft separation.
When is an ATS flight plan required for a flight receiving ATC service?
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Before operating any flight or portion of flight to be provided with ATC service.
Is a flight plan required for an IFR flight in advisory airspace?
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Yes.
Is a flight plan normally required for an international border crossing?
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Yes, unless otherwise prescribed by the States concerned.
Is a flight plan required for a night flight leaving the vicinity of an aerodrome?
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Yes under SERA.
How early may an applicable flight plan normally be submitted?
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Not more than 120 hours before EOBT.
How early should a flight subject to ATFM normally file?
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At least 3 hours before EOBT.
How early should other applicable flights normally file before departure?
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At least 60 minutes before departure.
If filing in flight, how early must ATS receive the plan before entering relevant controlled/advisory airspace?
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At least 10 minutes before the intended entry or crossing point.
Can a flight plan cover only part of a flight?
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Yes.
What are key elements of an ATS flight plan?
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Identification, rules/type, aircraft/equipment, departure, time, speed, level, route, destination, alternates and endurance.
Why is closing a flight plan important when an arrival report is required?
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Failure to close it can trigger unnecessary alerting and search-and-rescue action.
What does ATS stand for?
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Air Traffic Services.
What services are included in ATS?
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ATC, Flight Information Service, alerting service and air traffic advisory service.
What are the main objectives of ATS?
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Prevent collisions, maintain orderly traffic, provide useful information and support search and rescue.
To which IFR flights is ATC service provided?
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All IFR flights in Classes A, B, C, D and E.
To which VFR flights is ATC service provided?
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VFR flights in Classes B, C and D.
Is ATC service provided to Special VFR flights?
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Yes.
Is ATC service provided to aerodrome traffic at controlled aerodromes?
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Yes.
Does receiving Flight Information Service transfer responsibility from the PIC?
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No. The PIC remains responsible for decisions.
What is the purpose of Flight Information Service?
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To provide advice and information useful for safe and efficient flight.
What is alerting service?
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A service notifying and assisting organisations when aircraft may need search-and-rescue assistance.
Which aircraft normally receive alerting service?
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ATC-controlled aircraft, filed/known flights as practicable, and aircraft subject to unlawful interference.
What does ACC stand for?
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Area Control Centre.
What is the main role of an ACC?
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Providing area control service to controlled flights en route.
What is the main role of approach control?
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ATC service for controlled arriving and departing flights.
What is the main role of an aerodrome control tower?
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ATC service for aerodrome traffic.
What does AFIS provide?
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Flight Information Service and alerting service, not ATC service.
What does INCERFA mean?
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Uncertainty phase.
What does ALERFA mean?
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Alert phase.
What does DETRESFA mean?
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Distress phase.
What characterises DETRESFA?
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Reasonable certainty of grave and imminent danger or a need for immediate assistance.
Does an ATC clearance remove the PIC’s collision-avoidance responsibility?
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No.
Must pilots maintain vigilance even in controlled airspace and under IFR?
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Yes, whenever circumstances permit detection of collision hazards.
What should an aircraft with right-of-way normally do?
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Maintain heading and speed.
What should two aircraft approaching head-on do?
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Both alter heading to the right.
In a converging situation at similar level, which aircraft gives way?
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The aircraft that has the other aircraft on its right.
Which has priority: a power-driven aeroplane or a sailplane?
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The sailplane.
Which has priority: a sailplane or a balloon?
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The balloon.
What must a power-driven aircraft do when encountering an aircraft towing another aircraft or object?
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Give way.
Which aircraft has right-of-way during overtaking?
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The aircraft being overtaken.
To which side should an overtaking powered aircraft normally alter heading?
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To the right.
Who has priority: an aircraft landing or one operating on the ground?
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The landing aircraft.
When two aircraft are approaching to land, which normally has priority?
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The lower aircraft, but it must not cut in front of another on final.
What priority does an aircraft making an emergency landing have?
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Other aircraft must give way.
What must a taxiing aircraft do for an aircraft taking off or about to take off?
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Give way.
What should two taxiing aircraft approaching head-on do?
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Stop or, where practicable, both alter course to the right.
In a taxiway converging conflict, who gives way?
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The aircraft that has the other aircraft on its right.
May an aircraft cross an illuminated stop bar?
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No.
When may an aircraft proceed past a stop bar normally?
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When the stop-bar lights are switched off and the required clearance has been received.
What should a pilot do if uncertain of position on the manoeuvring area?
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Stop and immediately notify ATS, including the last known position.
What if position is uncertain but the pilot knows the aircraft is on a runway?
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Notify ATS, vacate via a suitable taxiway if able and not otherwise instructed, then stop.
What direction are aerodrome traffic-pattern turns normally made?
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To the left unless otherwise indicated or instructed by ATC.
What is the normal preferred take-off and landing direction?
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Into wind, unless safety, runway configuration or traffic considerations favour another direction.
What is SSR code 7700?
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Emergency.
What is SSR code 7600?
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Radio-communication failure.
What is SSR code 7500?
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Unlawful interference.
What is the normal SERA conspicuity code when not receiving ATS?
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7000, unless another code is prescribed.
What code may be selected when receiving ATS but no specific SSR code has been assigned?
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2000 or another code prescribed by the competent authority.
When should IDENT normally be operated?
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When requested by ATS.
What ATC items must always be read back?
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Route, runway, level, heading, speed, SSR, frequency, altimeter and transition-level safety-related instructions.
Which runway instructions require readback?
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Enter, land, take off, hold short, cross, taxi or backtrack on a runway.
Why is correct readback essential?
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It allows ATC to detect and correct misunderstandings before they become operational errors.
What must a controlled flight normally do with its current flight plan?
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Adhere to it unless a change is requested and cleared or emergency action is required.
What should be done after an inadvertent deviation from track?
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Correct the heading and regain track as soon as practicable.
If an ATC clearance is unacceptable or cannot safely be complied with, what should the pilot do?
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Inform ATC and request or obtain an amended clearance.
What time standard is used in aviation under SERA?
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Coordinated Universal Time (UTC).
How is UTC expressed operationally?
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Hours and minutes of the 24-hour day, with seconds when required.

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